Chonky Boi vs. Objective Idealism…?

Posted: March 26, 2024 in General Presup Issues

Atheist* youtuber Ben Watkins has made a video pitting his “objective idealism” against presuppositionalism. I put a star next to “atheist” because he explains what he means by the label in a helpful 2019 interview. In an interesting turn of events, Eli Ayala is bringing the stalwart Pillows onto the Revealed Apologetics youtube channel to respond (live stream, 7 days from now and counting).

Here’s the link to Watkins’ video.

Here’s the link to Eli and Josh’s livestream response. (I should be participating in the chat under my real name Scott Terry, if any of my readers – or haters – wish to show up and either praise or intellectually destroy me).

I wanted to offer a brief response as well, but first, some preliminaries:

  • Watkins has always struck me as one of the well-meaning unbelievers (if there can be such given the truth of Calvinist theology). Fantasy author George MacDonald often said a man isn’t well-launched on the path to being a true Christian until he’s begun to have honest* doubts. Honest doubts, as opposed to all the disingenuous and pompous bravado that too often characterizes atheist culture. (Far too often characterizes Christian apologists as well and MacDonald had both in mind in his quote). But I’ve always thought Watkins’ material civil, fair, and worth our time. God must send us his sort to help better clarify our positions and to keep us honest.
  • I’m excited he’s doing so, at least ostensibly, from an idealist perspective (more on this in a sec). In the comments of his video, someone informed him Van Til wrote an entire book pitting Christianity against Idealism. Indeed, it was his doctoral dissertation! Watkins said he was unaware and would look into it. Yes, I hope he does. So much of Van Til’s unique apologetic insight comes from his realizing how Reformed theology (especially its metaphysics) informed a unique epistemology that resolved so much that was at issue between the “idealists” and “pragmatists” of his own day. Having atheists take up the idealist position will simultaneously force presuppers back into Van Til’s primary literature while also, hopefully, getting them to study Sellars. In my view, Sellars (and his so-called “left-wing” acolytes) ought to be our absolute (pardon the pun) favorite non-Christian philosophers. That more lay-level presuppers aren’t reading and interacting with Sellars (and especially Brandom) is a travesty. Maybe Watkins can help us resolve it?

…which launches us immediately into our work:

When approaching a piece of philosophy (or, in our case, an ambiguous and wide-ranging video with lots of conceptually-opaque claims), Dr. Bahnsen has taught us to go through, disambiguate, boil down, and try to get a bare-bones outline of what’s actually happening.

When we do so with Watkins’ video, we find ourselves obliged to trim away his philosophical orientation. For example, he says his epistemological views are in sympathy with “Kant, Hegel, Hume.” Really? This tells us literally nothing since there have been worlds of epistemic speculation over the years that might fall in that milieu. “Me? My epistemic sympathies? Well, sir, they lie with Socrates, Descartes, Hobbes, Spinoza, Plantinga, Dooyeweerd, Carnap, Quine, and Van Inwagen!” Say whaaa?

Moreover, Watkins’ attempt to orient what he means by “objective idealism” is no more helpful. He lists names (including Sellars), as well as suggesting that his metaphysic will be informed by Sebastian Rodl’s book Self-Consciousness and Objectivity (3.33 min in). Yet, we never get any citations and it’s not clear what of Rodl’s is being used or how. So again, we must trim this away. We appreciate the nod towards background reading but it does nothing for us in the present, that is: in helping deal with Watkins’ exact claims and argument. (We extend some leeway to Watkins on this point since his video is only 20-odd minutes; nevertheless, we must trim his orientation out and focus on what, if anything, leftover is substantial. We aint up in here trying to argue about who belongs where on what sort of philosophical venn diagram).

What about those exact claims and arguments?

We’re going to get a two-step approach:

1 – Autonomous reasoning is true, therefore, presuppositionalism is false (or “undercut” as Watkins says).

and

2 – A “turning of the tables” on presuppers, using a divine hiddenness objection (perhaps inspired by recent comments from Dr. Alex Malpass); namely:

If presup were true, then there’d be no unbelievers.
There are unbelievers (denying the consequent)
Therefore, presup is false.


My Response?

Seems to me Watkins fails in step 1 by providing a view of autonomy no idealist would hold (but again, we’re not worried about labels. Where he fits in the scheme of positions and what label is most apt is irrelevant here), but additionally it undermines his entire case since the sort of autonomy he’s describing is impossible, even on his own account…as my friend’s chonky cat is about to demonstrate.

As for step 2, comments he makes to justify divine hiddenness objections over and against religious experience claims undermine his objectivist program in step 1!

I’d also like to point out a cheeky paradox that will be particularly troublesome for Watkins, though idealists like Hegel as well as many of the theistic British Idealists would have expected it. It’s called the “Knowability Paradox”.


To begin, here’s Watkins on autonomy (9:16 into the vid):

“The autonomy of reason constitutes freedom from external control or influence. And reason’s independence from collective or individual desire or authority. The term “autonomy” is derived from the Greek “autonomos” meaning: to have its own laws. Kant famously characterized his formula for autonomy or categorical imperative as the ability to act in accordance with self-given laws or rules. Rather than the arbitrary appetites of our desires or the whims of some authority. I will argue similarly that reason is autonomous, in that reason is independent of any subject whatsoever and reasoning is a self-governing act.”

Compare this with his important metaphysical statement at 9.02:

“Knowing and being are necessarily part of the same rationalist whole.”

These seem in obvious contention, no?

If knowing and being are necessarily bound together, how can we turn around and say “knowing” is autonomous in the way laid out above?

Moreover, let’s dig in this particular knife (or, as we’ll see: claws) a little deeper:

My friend has a cat. The cat is comically fat. Consider the following statement:

“Your cat chonky, bruh. He a chonky boi!”

Must we, to understand this, subject ourselves to linguistic rules, at the very least? Of course, Watkins might reply that in doing so – and to the extent our thoughts must be expressed linguistically – we only have a trivial sort of syntactical submission to authority. It doesn’t negate a thought’s content being “autonomous.” Ok, but even if we grant that – and that’s granting a lot – how to tell the difference between a chonky boi and a skinny boi? Am I at liberty to conceptualize my friend’s cat as “thin” if, the reality is, my friend’s cat chonky? It seems Watkins must grant this else give up his strong position on “autonomy.” (But to grant it is to give up objectivity!)

Further, this sort of consideration has lead idealists – at least since Hegel – to reason “upwards and outwards.” That is: to a wider and wider scope of an idealist holism, resulting in “absolute” mind uber alles. Whether it’s Wordsworth saying that if only we know the rose, we’d know all reality; Bosanquet saying that to know two lines are parallel we must know all points of space; or Van Til saying that to know the cow in the field requires us to know *all* facts – this line of thinking has not lead to an “autonomy” of reasoning for idealists historically as it has for Watkins. Quite the opposite. It’s lead to the utmost bondage of human reason to absolute mind! (Not saying Van Til was an idealist, but in this respect he’s formally similar. I had to add this edit else Lane Tipton would put out a hit on me…)

How does Watkins avoid the “absolute” of Hegel (or even of the British Idealists)? He wants the “Many” but not the “One.” We’re not told in this short video. Maybe he gives us a hint elsewhere? As it is, until this seeming contradiction is resolved for us, we presuppers (based on this one video) seem justified in suggesting that Watkins’ stated metaphysic contradicts his view of autonomy.

Gotta have that One and that Many my dude. And the two must fit together naturally in a way that’s motivated by our overall theory. The British Idealists (said Van Til) worked themselves to the One, but cut out the Many. The “pragmatists” had the Many, but not the One. (If only there were a position available where the One and the Many were equally ultimate *and* personal *and* loving *and*, according to the theory, decided to have revealed Himself as such…)

“But I know I have hands!” cries Watkins.

What are hands without fingers without arms without Watkins without Watkins’ parents, without …ad infinitum…? Just a disjointed (heh) mess/mass of particulars. An impossible-to-autonomously-conceptualize “Many”.

Say he a chonky boi without sacrificing your presumed autonomy on the altar of the absolute…!

Secondly, and a little perniciously, let’s look at how Watkins talks about religious experience in relation to divine hiddenness (at 18:05 in):

“…however, there is not such widespread inter-subjective experiences [of God]. Not everyone has theistic religious experience. And most subjects of religious experience widely disagree about the fundamental nature, content, and significance of religious experience. Some people never believe or no longer believe God exists. This non-theism is neither the result of emotional or behavioral opposition towards God…”

I’m just going to make a note here, then move on:

I don’t understand how Watkins’ view that “knowing and being are part of the same whole” can be reconciled with his rejection of the “knowing” of many religious experiencers, nor with their having religious experiences to begin with. If knowing and being are part of the same whole (as Watkins needs them to be to get some semblance of objectivity in his epistemology), then why does this suddenly not apply to religious experience? Why is my experience of a chonky boi an actual experience of the whole (I’m sure Watkins grants there are some legitimate chonky boi experiences) while my experience of God is not?

Seems like some of what Dr. Bahnsen called: “well-concealed axe-grinding” going on ’round here…

Finally, let’s briefly discuss Fitch’s Knowability Paradox.

To begin, we have to, again, bring up Watkins’ idealist metaphysic, where knowing and being are part of the same whole, thus bridging the subject / object gap that’s plagued epistemologists at least since Kant. Consider Watkins, starting at 6.22:

“The form of objective idealism I’ll be defending here is roughly the view that “reason” is a fundamental and primitive idea. To use some Hegelian jargon, we can have knowledge of the world in and for itself by understanding any determinate concept in itself, then out of itself by way of negation.

This dialectic implies that humans are rational animals capable of reason or understanding reasons. To have certain beliefs by way of concepts or ideas. Because the world itself has a rational and intelligible structure.”

That last line really does the trick, eh?

“…the world itself has a rational and intelligible structure.”

This isn’t a throw-away concept for Watkins. It’s a very important metaphysical proposition which plays a big role in his epistemology. Another way of saying this is to say: all truths are knowable. (If there are any unknowable truths, the world is no longer rational and intelligible). So, what happens when someone’s position leads them to say all truths are knowable?

Well, it leads them to Fitch’s Knowability Paradox. From the Wiki blurb:

“If all truths were knowable, it would follow that all truths are in fact known.”

I wont outline this here. Anyone interested will have to read up on this for themselves. But, were I to debate Watkins as a presuppositionalist, I’d present this for his consideration.

Either he’ll have to give up the proposition that all truth is knowable (that is: give up his metaphysic that “the world itself is rational”), or he’ll have to accept some sort of absolute mind (that would mean he’d no longer be an atheist!), or he’ll have to defeat Fitch’s paradox.

Good luck with those options, Watkins.

It’d be easier to put my friend’s chonky boi on a diet…

Comments
  1. SLIMJIM says:

    I will share th is in the next round up

    Like

  2. babyfoot says:

    Just watched the Eli & Josh review after the fact – didn’t make the live stream, unfortunately. 

    I don’t think the claim that the world has a rational and intelligible structure implies that all truths can be known, so Fitch’s paradox is not a problem for Watkins. He just has accept that not all truth is knowable.

    Why do you think he’s making the claim that all truths are knowable?

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    • “He just has to accept that not all truth is knowable…”

      The first question would be, why are there some truths that cannot be known? The answer must be metaphysical. There must be some reason, in principle, the truth cannot be known.

      …this would require Watkins to retool and/or give up his entire metaphysical view.

      Maybe you can help him do it somehow? If not, and if he intends to stick with his stated idealism, he’ll have to either accept theism (an omniscient mind) or defeat the paradox some other way.

      Like

      • babyfoot says:

        “There must be some reason, in principle, [some truths] cannot be known.”

        Surely yes, there must be a reason.

        “…this would require Watkins to retool and/or give up his entire metaphysical view.”

        Why? How is his metaphysical view undermined by the possibility that there are some truths that can’t be known?

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        • I’m not going to try to motivate this for you or get into Watkins’ head.

          Instead, go back to the apt line:

          “…the world itself has a rational and intelligible structure.”

          …only, this is false, if there are truths in the world that are, in principle, unknowable. A world of unknowable truths is an irrational world.

          Think through that. Try to find counterexamples. Try to find an example of a true proposition that, in principle, cannot be known, and yet, still obtain within a “world with a rational and intelligible structure.”

          Watkins’ chosen metaphysic requires that all truths be knowable, which leads him to Fitch’s paradox.

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          • ….you know, I’ve actually been trying to think of ways Watkins could try to get around this.

            Recall the old atheist response to early versions of the cosmological argument? If everything that exists requires a cause, then let’s have a different cause for all things!

            In the same way, Watkins, to avoid the knowability paradox, might posit something like an infinite number of persons inhabiting the universe, enough to cover (and know) all true propositions.

            This might sound crazy but if Watkins were to try and appeal to some sort of panpsychist / materialist account … where all that exists is matter, which has some fundamental property of consciousness (or some such).

            Actually, I bet this might be how Watkins tries to pivot to avoid the Knowability Paradox… but he’d have some problems doing so. (Not least of which, most panpsychists don’t believe fundamental particles of consciousness have the cognitive ability to know truths; they only obtain that ability when they group together and “emerge” into a mind state somehow – but then we’re back to the knowability paradox problem and need to find some other universal mind).

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          • babyfoot says:

            “A world of unknowable truths is an irrational world.”

            I’m just not seeing that. Consider Godel’s incompleteness theorem. It proves that any formal system built on a set of axioms will necessarily contain truths that cannot be proven within the system. That does not imply that the system is irrational. On the contrary, it can be quite rational: many things can be known, and the proofs that exist can be valid. It’s just that there are some truths that can’t be proven (i.e. known with certainty). How does that make the system irrational?

            Mathematics is one such system. Are you willing to say that mathematics is irrational just because there are some mathematical truths that can’t be known?

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  3. Re: Godel, that’s just not a good illustration. Godel didn’t prove that there were unknowable truths. (Some true propositions can’t be proven true within a given calculus, ok, but they’re still knowable in principle).

    It doesn’t matter if truths can be proven or not. A truth that can’t be proven might still be known through some other means (say: noninferentially somehow).

    If, however, a truth is “unprovable” in principle, then that is, by definition, an irrational truth. It literally cannot be reasoned to or about. A universe which contains such truths would not be compatible with Watkins’ metaphysic.

    As for your last question, I’m not sure there are any mathematical truths that cannot be known.

    …if there were, you wouldn’t know about them to tell me. The moment you tell me about them, they’re “known-unknowns” and “knowable” (even if not presently known).

    This paradox has teeth! 😀

    Look at the lengths to which you’ll have to go to keep an idealist out of trouble. Most people would just reject idealism. (A very few might, instead, accept God).

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    • babyfoot says:

      “A truth that can’t be proven might still be known through some other means”

      Not sure about that. Going to have to think about it. It seems to me that to know a mathematical truth IS to prove it. You can have a hunch that it’s true, but unless you can prove it, you don’t know it. 

      Goldbach’s conjecture is a good example. It may well be something that falls under Godel’s umbrella, but we don’t know that for sure because we don’t know if it’s true.

      “If, however, a truth is unprovable in principle, then that is, by definition, an irrational truth. It literally cannot be reasoned to or about.”

      That seems fair, I can accept that it can’t be known with certainty via reason so is irrational in that sense, although it can probably still be reasoned about.

      “A universe which contains such truths would not be compatible with Watkins’ metaphysic.”

      This is the part I’m having trouble with. I don’t see why that is. Can you elaborate on that specific point? Why can’t Watkins just say “yes, there may be some truths that are necessarily implied by my reasoning, which nonetheless will remain unprovable and therefore inaccessible to me”. Why is that a problem for his metaphysic?

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      • You need to provide a legitimate counter example.

        Show one true proposition that cannot, in principle, be known, in a hypothetically “rational” universe.

        If you cannot (and you cannot), then Watkins has a big problem.

        I’m sorry I haven’t been able to help you see it and I don’t know how I can make it more clear for you.

        A universe which has, in principle, many true propositions that are unknowable, is not a universe of the sort an “objectivist idealist” wants to believe in.

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        • babyfoot says:

          A universe which has, in principle, many true propositions that are unknowable, is not a universe of the sort an “objectivist idealist” wants to believe in.

          Why not? I don’t see the problem with it. That’s what I want you to explain. Without an explanation of this, your objection has no force.

          You need to provide a legitimate counter example.

          So you don’t like the Godel-type examples. I think they’re legit, but let me see if I can come up with something else.

          How about this. Consider the exact state of all the particles in the universe at some specific time t. Call that state S. S has a definite truth value (i.e. there is a fact of the matter), but it is in principle impossible for any being within that universe to know S. Why? because to know S would require at least as much information capacity as S and that’s impossible for a subset of S.

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  4. babyfoot says:

    Show one true proposition that cannot, in principle, be known, in a hypothetically “rational” universe.

    Reading back over your comment, I’m thinking that maybe this sentence gives a clue about what you’re objecting to. Is it the case that for you, a “rational” universe can only contain knowable truths, because unknowable truths are irrational and there can be no irrational things in a rational universe?

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    • I’ll reply to both of your last comments here.

      I take your Godel-like examples (and your exact-state-of-all-particles-at-T1) as examples of truths which are unknowable in practice, but not in principle. We might add that, in practice, the exact number of craters on the moon is unknowable for me; had I long enough legs, however, there’d be nothing stopping me from counting the craters.

      Consider:

      Whatever the true account of logic (in this case, rather: whatever the account of logic to which Watkins holds), it must range over the full domain of propositions. Even mathematical ones. Were there any propositions which were not under the domain of this accepted theory of logic, they would be truths that require Watkins to, minimally, retool his entire metaphysic. As it is, even sophisticated mathematical calculations that no finite human would ever have the memory capacity to perform would still, nevertheless, fall under the domain of the true theory of logic, and thus, be knowable in principle (if not in practice).

      Recall:

      One motivation for people to accept idealism is that it seems like a nifty way to defeat a sort of Kantian skepticism (between the noumenal and phenomenal). To do this, we just say the seemings *are* the being, and it’s all contained (at least for Hegel) in one “absolute mind”. It’s to this absolute (or some derivative thereof) Watkins appeals to make his case against presup. If, however, this absolute mind is not rational all-the-way down, then we lose the primary motivation for idealism and a sort of skepticism re-emerges. If, in this metaphysic, there are some “truths” (true propositions) which are not true with respect to the same theory of logical entailment as the others, then there are now rational propositions and irrational ones! An antithesis that must be further synthesized, which can only happen by appeal to a yet “larger” absolute which, itself, will contain some rational principle (a new, more all-encompassing, theory of logic) that describes the apparent conflict. So on ad infinitum until the buck stops somewhere, with a rational absolute (where all true propositions are knowable, in principle).

      I’ll let you respond to this – I know I typed a lot, but then I think we’ll have to put a pin in it. If you haven’t understood my position at this point, there’s nothing further I can do to help I’m afraid.

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      • babyfoot says:

        I take your Godel-like examples (and your exact-state-of-all-particles-at-T1) as examples of truths which are unknowable in practice, but not in principle.

        Here you’re mistaken. They are unknowable in principle. It’s not like the craters, which I agree are merely unknowable in practice.

        I think at this point I do understand what you’re saying (thanks for the clarification), and I’m now seeing that we just disagree on the ramifications of Godel’s incompleteness theorem. I understand it to imply that there can be emergent artifacts of a rational system that IN PRINCIPLE cannot be proven (and sometimes therefore cannot be known) within that system. Godel proved that this is true of ALL axiom-based rational systems, so it’s not a question just finding the right axioms. This was devastating to the early 20th-century attempts to “ground” mathematics, but it was not devastating to mathematics itself. Mathematics remains fully rational, despite the unknowable truths that must necessarily exist within it.

        The same can be said for Watkins’ idealism, which can therefore neatly avoid Fitch by denying that all truths can be known. No retooling is necessary on those grounds.

        Anyway I’m not here to defend idealism (it’s not a position I hold) but I do find it fun and enlightening to engage in these discussions and to challenge arguments where I find them inadequate. Thanks for taking the time to engage with me, and for being nice to me. If only there were more presups like you 🙂

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        • I’ve only read one book on Godel and can’t say I understood much; speaking anecdotally, however, I know too often much more is made of him and his incompleteness theorem than is often warranted. (Sort of the way an ambiguous nod towards “quantum mechanics” has been used to justify everything from ghosts to teleporting bigfoot).

          I’m not accusing you of anything so crass here, but I do worry about these “necessarily unknowable” true propositions that, keep in mind, would not do damage to an absolute idealist (like Watkins).

          You and I are at a disadvantage since neither of us (presumably?) know Watkins personally and can’t speak for how his system might accommodate Godel or what “necessarily unknowable truths” would do to it.

          I think you’re going to run into trouble trying to figure out truth-makers for these necessarily unknowables, or in figuring out what it means for them to even be “true” … doing so would require you to take too many liberties with Watkins’ position, I think.

          (I’m left trying to figure out what it would be like for a human mind – by analogy – to have true thoughts that it, necessarily, could never know it had… it just seems prima facie implausible).

          Anyway – please feel free to have the last word on this issue (I’ll read what you post and think through it carefully).

          But I’d also like to hear how you think an idealist like Watkins can keep his “autonomy” (as he defined it) while also keeping objective predications (like autonomosly saying a cat is thin, when it’s really fat).

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          • babyfoot says:

            I sympathize with your suspicion of arguments that lean on such esoteric things as Godel incompleteness or quantum mechanics (and other things I won’t name here). Indeed I share it. There are many misuses out there that prey on people’s vague grasp of the concepts, and we are right to be on our guard.

            I never heard of Watkins until you mentioned him on Eli’s stream a few days ago, and I have never communicated with him. So I can’t speak for him or his view – I can only react to what’s in front of me.

            (I’m left trying to figure out what it would be like for a human mind – by analogy – to have true thoughts that it, necessarily, could never know it had… it just seems prima facie implausible).

            Put like that, it does sound pretty weird. Maybe this consideration will help. We can comfortably hold in our minds the concept of ALL the natural numbers without actually having a distinct thought of each and every one of them. That is to say, logical implications of our true ideas, in order to be true, do not have to be actually thought. Logical implication is enough to grant them true status. We don’t need to think them explicitly. We don’t even need to know them.

            But I’d also like to hear how you think an idealist like Watkins can keep his “autonomy” (as he defined it) while also keeping objective predications (like autonomosly saying a cat is thin, when it’s really fat).

            Oh my, you have unholstered your can-opener. I’m a strong proponent of autonomous reasoning and I believe that we autonomous thinkers can indeed make objective predications. If you’d like to start a discussion about that, I’m game, but is this really the place for it? Are you on Discord?

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          • babyfoot says:

            Your questions about autonomy led me to re-watch the video and re-read your article, and now I have so much more to say. How charmingly frustrating.

            Very briefly, I think you might be extending Watkins’ view of autonomy farther than he intended. He was asserting the autonomy or reason, while in your article you were characterizing it as the autonomy of knowledge. Not at all the same thing! The former (imo) is defensible, the latter probably not.

            I’m a little confused now about what is the presup view of autonomy. I had understood it to mean reason independent of input from God and the Bible, and that presuppositionalism denies that such reasoning can lead to knowledge. Yet in the third paragraph of your most recent post you say:

            by “autonomy”, we just mean that someone uses the Bible as an authoritative guide to interpreting the data

            which sounds like you’re saying that autonomous reasoning is a good thing. A typo, or me being thick?

            ***

            I’m not feeling the overturning force of the laws of linguistics to Watkins’ autonomous reasoning. It seems to me that there is no reason to suppose that thoughts must be expressed or stored linguistically. There are a myriad of ways to encode any given information, and language is only one of them (and not the best one, either).

            My educational background is in Physics and Philosophy (major in Physics and minor in Philosophy), but that was several decades ago and I am very rusty in all of it, having spent the intervening years programming computers and working in artificial intelligence, image processing, and virtual reality. Information Content is a big thing for me, and is a an important influence on how I view the world. The older I get, the more I lean towards the idea that the only reality that we can truly know is information – which we are free to encode in any way that suits us. Matter, space, time, etc are merely a particular encoding of that information. I can’t defend that, though. At the moment it’s just a hunch I’m trying to explore.

            For reading, I can suggest something that you’ve probably already read: Godel, Escher, Bach by Douglas Hofstadter. Or if you’re feeling more ambitious, the first 2 chapters of volume 3 of The Feynman Lectures on Physics by Richard Feynman contain an excellent and BS-free description of quantum mechanics with minimal math. Both of those books are a good prophylactic against the woo-woo nonsense that plagues popular discourse.

            Our little exchange here is the largest body of my writing that you will find on the internet. It’s been fun.

            ***

            Oh, just as I was bout to fire it off, I thought of this: if in fact unknowable truths can exist, what does that say about the possibility of omniscience?

            (head explodes)

            (not really… I can think of a good answer that rescues it)

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  5. I really want to comment on the content of your last thoughts but I’ve given you the last word.

    As to autonomy, however, I think you’re often moving back and forth between your own view and Watkins’ idealism. What you might or might not be able to defend will be different than what Watkins could (or couldn’t do), just by virtue of having two different metaphysics in play.

    On that note: it seems to me Watkins has taken too strong a stand on “autonomy”. On the presup view, by “autonomy”, we just mean that someone uses the Bible as an authoritative guide to interpreting the data with which one is presented. (Or, in rare cases, “autonomous” could have more metaphysical usages, like, say, if a presupper is defending his Calvinism against a libertarian free-willer, who thinks his will is metaphysically distinct – or “autonomous” – from God’s foreordinating activity …. but this usage is less common although still assumed, in the background, of the first, more common, epistemic usage).

    To deny this presup view of autonomy, one need only reject Christianity simpliciter – one need not do, as Watkins did in the video – and present an entirely different view of autonomy which is far stronger and (seems to me) more difficult to defend.

    …analogously, (to use the free will debate again), if a guy wants his will to be completely free, we might remind him he can’t will himself to float or will himself to turn invisible. So his will is still in bondage to the natural laws, at the very least. “Well, that’s not what I mean by autonomous! I can have weight and be affected by natural laws, and still keep my kind of autonomy…” … ok, but how? How are you re-tooling and refining your understanding of “autonomy”

    In the same way, seems like Watkins’ view of autonomy is overturned by the mere fact that his thoughts must be expressed linguistically and, therefore, are subject to public grammar (at the very least!)…the same way the would-be libertarian free-willer is subject to natural laws.

    In any case, you, perhaps, need no such very strong claim of autonomy and maybe have something else in mind? I’m not sure you will fare any better than Watkins has though.

    While I do have Discord, and while I have enjoyed our exchange (and maybe even benefited from it), I’m not looking to open up that accursed app again any time soon. Feel free to link me to your blog material (if you have any).

    Also, I can’t let our conversation end without you giving me at least one book suggestion. (I like to get recommended reading from those with whom I’ve disagreed).

    Thanks again for your time.

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    • babyfoot says:

      phooey, it put my reply in the wrong place, and there is no Undo

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      • Sorry about the disorderly wordpress comment-management system. I’ll reply here:

        Yes, that was a typo on my part. I do apologize. I meant that our (presup) view of autonomy is just when someone *does not* use or rely (in any self-conscious way) on the Bible when interpreting the experiences with which one is presented. What a gaff…

        (…although, again, we do have other metaphysical assumptions packaged in with this view).

        I may have thought Watkin’s view of autonomy to be far stricter and exacting than you found it to be (or that he meant it to be). In any case, if I have understood him correctly, it’s far too strong a view and mundane things (like expressing one’s thoughts in language) would disprove it. (Even if you don’t think language is always required for reason – as I do – you might still concede that Watkins would want to avoid saying that any thoughts-expressed-linguistically would necessarily be a violation of his view of autonomy).

        And thanks for the reading suggestions! Everyone loves Godel, Escher, Bach for some reason! It keeps popping up over and over again. I’ve owned an old, ratty, second-hand copy for years but have never gotten around to it. Maybe you’ve given me the push…

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